Anonymous
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Theory to explain 'Tone Deafness'?
#989465 - 25/05/12 12:04 AM
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I was making a kind of analysis of jaw harp spectral tones created by formants/vowels and
noticed that when I was listening intensely to the overtone pitch and its vowel (to
determine which spectral tone it was) I momentarily had trouble pitching the fundamental
tone again. It only happened once, but this is quite odd for me, because I've never had
any trouble pitching notes or melodies before. In fact, it probably takes more mental
effort to sing out of tune as I'm sure it does for most people.
I wonder
then, if people with tone deafness get confused by spectral tones when they are singing
because their mind's are concentrating on vowels (and their associated spectral tones) so
much. This might explain why they often can't determine if a note is going up or down from
the last one, and why they often sing on a drifting monotone or like someone wearing
headphones.
I've noticed that tone-deaf people tend to be very
language-dominant. If they're more focussed on words (and thus the formants) it could be
that abstract pitches confuse them. I've known more engineering*, medical and especially
law students that were completely tone-deaf than in any other careers and it rarely seems
to occur in people who are good at the arts.
(*Sound engineering, however,
usually filters out the tone-deaf people. Joe Meek struggled though, I've heard some tapes
of him demostrating melodies with really vague intonation and apparently he didn't realise
he was out of tune and at times completely off key!)
(Just a thought. I
could be completely wrong.)
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Daniel Davis
Joined: 10/03/06
Posts: 725
Loc: Edinburgh
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Re: Theory to explain 'Tone Deafness'?
[Re: ]
#991289 - 04/06/12 10:42 PM
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Vowels are precise pitches (or formants to be more precise), which suggests that everyone
has not just good relative pitch, but actually perfect pitch else we couldn't perceive
vowels. Music is close to language in the sense that those exposed to music at
an early age don't just get a head start, it is actually more difficult to learn later,
and those who start later may never catch up, because they have missed the developmental
window which is available in childhood for musical skills. Musical brains have to be
built. Now if someone is not born into a musical household and then gets little
music at primary school and therefore doesn't pursue it as an exam subject, you wonder why
they seem to be tone deaf? The answer might be that they never developed good pitch sense,
or that they never learned to sing, and certainly that they have not learned to match the
two, but it is unlikely to be because they are good at law. There are other more
parsimonious reasons such as competition for time which would explain why law students
might not be such good musicians. On the other hand I studied A-level music
alongside a very good musician who is now a rather well-known QC, so the two are not
mutually exclusive.
-------------------- Daniel Davis
Edinburgh Recording Studio Windmill Sound
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zenguitar
active member
Joined: 05/12/02
Posts: 7592
Loc: Devon
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Re: Theory to explain 'Tone Deafness'?
[Re: ]
#991300 - 04/06/12 11:34 PM
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On Radio 4 last week I heard a comment in passing that grabbed my attention, but as so
often happens I missed the earlier context and didn't have the time to follow it up. I caught the end of a discussion that included Perfect Pitch in passing and the
comment that grabbed my attention was that we are all born with Perfect Pitch. The point
being made was that new born infants (presumably in all species) need Perfect Pitch to
enable them to recognise their mother's voice and bond. But most people start losing the
ability after about 3 months once sight becomes the dominant sense. Now, that's
all I heard and I don't know enough about the subject, or remember the program I caught
the end of, to comment further or defend the view. It's just something I found interesting
and mentally filed away for future consideration. Andy
-------------------- When the going gets weird, the Weird turn Pro.
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Anonymous
Unregistered
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Re: Theory to explain 'Tone Deafness'?
[Re: zenguitar]
#991302 - 05/06/12 12:04 AM
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I have a theory about perfect pitch too: pitch has to mean or signify something
important to be recognised.
Here's the thing... when I was a student (about
18), I got into debt and then forgot to pay it by the deadline. I received a letter that
the bailiffs were coming round and everytime I heard my door buzzer I felt a bit sick.
From then on, whenever I heard a similar low buzzing on the television or
something -I jumped- but only if it was that exact pitch (low G)! I had no doubt at all
that it was that same pitch when the timbre was also the same. This particular association
has since faded, but I do often become instantly attentive when my mobile phone's exact
pitch and timbre occasionally crop up in an advert or something.
This
correlates with reports of people learning to recognise pitch but only on one instrument
(timbre) and/or in one key (signature). Now, an infant's brain won't have enough awareness
of the world to really know what is important to survival, so it can easily learn (or be
encouraged) to think a pitch means something important in life.
So, I think
it's possible we all have perfect pitch latently, only you might have to be torchered
slightly to learn it. Hey, no pain, no gain.
I'll have to read the previous
posts in greater depth than my eyes can take right now, but I've read that relative pitch
is actually a more sophisticated attribute than perfect pitch -possibly even unique to
humans. I suppose it's pretty impressive to transpose so many pitches to any pitch level.
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Anonymous
Unregistered
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Re: Theory to explain 'Tone Deafness'?
[Re: Daniel Davis]
#991383 - 05/06/12 03:21 PM
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Quote Daniel Davis:
Vowels are
precise pitches (or formants to be more precise), which suggests that everyone has not
just good relative pitch, but actually perfect pitch else we couldn't perceive vowels.
But don't these "precise
pitches" change depending on the fundamental pitch? I mean, I can make the same vowels on
a smaller jaw harp which would form a different spectrum above this (now) higher
fundamental and therefore different pitches for each vowel. If what you are saying were
true, surely there would never have been any mystery surrounding perfect pitch?
About the causes of tone deafness, wikipedia seems to sum up the current thinking pretty well.
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Daniel Davis
Joined: 10/03/06
Posts: 725
Loc: Edinburgh
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Re: Theory to explain 'Tone Deafness'?
[Re: ]
#991427 - 05/06/12 06:56 PM
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Airfix
Joined: 07/05/12
Posts: 240
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Re: Theory to explain 'Tone Deafness'?
[Re: ]
#991435 - 05/06/12 07:49 PM
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To think about singing and spacetime at the same time must be hard - on a brain. Poor
Einstein! Best not to think about it. Unless your a scientist with a clarinet. and even
then the observation disrupts the experiment, of course. I dont believe in tone deaf.
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Anonymous
Unregistered
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Re: Theory to explain 'Tone Deafness'?
[Re: Daniel Davis]
#991453 - 05/06/12 09:59 PM
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RE: Daniel Davis
My understanding of vowels and timbres is still not
complete, but isn't it to do with the presence and relative strength of spectra within the
tone that produces the vowel or timbre? So, a clarinet produces (mostly) odd overtones
1:3:5,7, etc whatever the pitch. Similarly, if I were to sing an "Ah" vowel, surely it
involves a similar envelope of harmonics when sung at different pitches?
If
an instrument might produce a slightly different vowel/timbre for each note (that is also
unique to that instrument) this could explain how people are able to recognise notes. But
there is some seemingly contradictory information on this ability of perfect pitch...
Wikipedia: "Absolute pitch is an act of cognition, needing memory of the
frequency, a label for the frequency (such as "B-flat"), and exposure to the range of
sound encompassed by that categorical label."
Wikipedia: "Absolute pitch does
not depend upon a refined ability to perceive and discriminate gradations of sound
frequencies, but upon detecting and categorizing a subjective perceptual quality typically
referred to as 'chroma'."
If it is an 'act of cognition', this suggests it's
label is (quickly) 'worked out' from the spectral content of a given tone. But they are
also stating that it requires memory of the frequency associated with a label.
These seem to me to be two entirely different methods. You either know the pitch as a
memory with a label, or you 'work out' the pitch from it's spectral (vowel) content. And
why does recognition of an instrument tone require a "subjective perceptual quality" if it
is something within the spectra of the tone?
I'm a little confused, but I'm
very interested in this so any clarifications would be welcome.
Thanks.
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Daniel Davis
Joined: 10/03/06
Posts: 725
Loc: Edinburgh
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Re: Theory to explain 'Tone Deafness'?
[Re: ]
#991454 - 05/06/12 10:24 PM
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Personally I think there has been way too much written about perfect pitch as if it is
some immensely complicated phenomena. I mean, no-one makes the similar judgement
concerning the fact that you can see and remember colour, or smell.
-------------------- Daniel Davis
Edinburgh Recording Studio Windmill Sound
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Anonymous
Unregistered
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Re: Theory to explain 'Tone Deafness'?
[Re: Daniel Davis]
#991531 - 06/06/12 02:10 PM
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Quote:
...no-one makes the
similar judgement concerning the fact that you can see and remember colour, or smell.
I've never really thought of
this ability to be equivalent to colour recognition. For one, colours are provided by
nature, whereas our common scales and tonal system is only abstracted from nature. I think
of timbre recognition as being more equivalent. Still, if the two abilities are linked
then perhaps it's just a more developed sense.
I agree that we probably all
have it to some degree. I can certainly recall a piece of music easier with it's original
key in mind, and I can tune my guitar correctly without a tuning reference (as I'm sure
most guitar players can).
But I couldn't name or sing any pitch on demand.
Less than 1 in 10000 people have developed the skill to this extent. Probably even fewer
could recognise tones from any instrument in and in any octave. It apparently declines
with age too -even if you use it! Some people even experience the perceived pitches to be
sharper after middle age, so instruments seem to be playing the wrong note. What a
nightmare!
With that in mind, I'm not going to any great lengths to acquire
it, I've got solfege anyway. I'm not sure how useful it would be to the music I do today,
because I compose with different tonal systems now. (I've heard people with the ability
struggle with alternative intonations and tend to have an overly 'digital' (scale-step)
approach to music.)
Still, you'd think people would be able to acquire it by
analysing the spectrum of their own instrument tones with a filter.
What
I'm still not clear on is, if I twang a "Ah" vowel on my jaw harp (for instance) how can
the pitches in the spectrum be absolutely fixed for this vowel? I mean, how can an "Ah" on
a smaller harp produce the same exact (fixed) pitches, because it's a different spectrum
coming from each jaw harp? Also, what happens if you re-pitch a jaw harp recording?
Shouldn't we hear different vowels? Is there really an exact set of frequencies that
enables us to recognise each vowel. I always thought they were just relative to any
fundamental.
I don't know if I've got a mental block, but something isn't
right. Can any acoustics experts shed any light on this please?
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Anonymous
Unregistered
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Re: Theory to explain 'Tone Deafness'?
[Re: ]
#991805 - 07/06/12 02:39 PM
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I've got it now. The frequency bands that determine perceived vowel formants are so high
in the harmonic spectrum that they cross the spectrums of all fundamental tones (within a
certain range) regardless of the fundamental note.
Technically (I'd say)
these are not really 'precise pitches' (unless you're talking about a single note
fundamental) but very narrow frequency ranges (within the 'just noticeable difference' of
pitch discrimination) that encompass very similar frequencies from different spectrums of
different notes.
Thanks.
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